ReconRat Posted January 23, 2016 Report Share Posted January 23, 2016 (edited) The right to property is a change of viewpoint in early America. Previously, elections were only for people who owned property. Only they could vote. Changing to that everyone has a right to vote, recognized that everyone has the right to own property. There is technically no "right to own property". It's complicated. In part it's from the American and French revolutions, and the French declarations of both 1791 and 1948 recognizing the rights of all people. Which recognizes "the property of one's self" and "the labor of his body and the work of his hand". Everything else is just politics making promises they can't keep. edit: Differing view points on property ownership and who should be allowed to own property has been part of a few revolutions and civil wars. In short, back when we had Kings/Queens and the general population, "laborers" were not allowed to own property. Europe, Latin America, and Africa have specific proclamations about rights of property ownership by any individual or group. Edited January 23, 2016 by ReconRat 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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